“Is it true or is it false that the Old Testament was written in Hebrew (except for a very small portion of Daniel)and that it was divinely given to the Jews?”
OK. I relent. I’ll answer your question.
Generally, yes. This appears to be the case.
The majority of scholars believe that nearly all of the Old Testament was first written in Hebrew. They consider that parts of Daniel, Ezra, and some scattered verses were originally in Aramaic.
In fact, a single word in Psalm 2 was considered Aramaic by the KJV scholars, when they translated the last verse to begin “kiss the Son...”
However, keep in mind that this is history which is, for the most part, not necessarily supported or proved within the Bible itself.
We do not know from the Bible itself whether the very first autographs were mostly Hebrew in the Old Testament and Greek in the New Testament.
Much was written during and after the Babylonian captivity while many Jews mostly forgot Hebrew.
Aramaic was also the common language of the Jews during Christ’s earthly ministry. While Jesus seems, based on several passages, to have spoken Greek, Hebrew, and Aramaic, many of the Jews of that time were not fluent in Hebrew and needed the Old Testament scriptures to be translated into Aramaic when read at synagogue.
Paul calls himself a “Hebrew of the Hebrews.” And the Israelites were “Hebrews” before becoming Israel. Yet, many of them lost their ability to understand Hebrew or never had it at all. Therefore, the answer to your question is not a simple yes or no. But, generally, yes.
For the majority of the time that Israel existed up until Christ came, she did not have the scriptures available to her in her native language. Access to the written Word of God was absent, then came, went, and returned again.
You’ve been harping on this lynchpin question now for quite some time. Do you have a point?