Oh yeah, like in the Old Testament when He blessed the Egyptians, the Amalekites, the Edomites, the Canaanites, the Syrians, the Moabites, the Ammonites, the Midianites, the Philistines, the Assyrians and the Babylonians with His Word in their languages.
Thanks, for the reminder I completely forgot about that.
Here is my earlier post which you quoted: He also blessed numerous other translations in numerous other languages.
“Oh yeah, like in the Old Testament when He blessed the Egyptians, the Amalekites, the Edomites, the Canaanites, the Syrians, the Moabites, the Ammonites, the Midianites, the Philistines, the Assyrians and the Babylonians with His Word in their languages... Thanks, for the reminder I completely forgot about that.”
How long are you going to strive against the Holy Spirit to hinder the truth? Must the Lord touch your health, or bring some other judgment on you to reprove and correct your stubborn pride and mockery?
These people are ancient ones with languages that do not even exist today. And God even spared some from among these accursed nations. Rahab, a prostitute among the Canaanite people of Jericho, was spared and even in the lineage of Christ. So was Ruth, the Moabite woman. She is the only woman the scripture specifically calls a “virtuous woman.”
Much of the Old Testament was available in Aramaic, which was widely spoken at various times in Syria and Babylon. In fact, some of the original words of scripture in both the Old and New Testaments were Aramaic, and were later translated into Hebrew, Greek, and English. So, yes, these people did receive the Word of God in their own tongue.
But you are speaking about Old Testament times. In the New Testament we see the word of God being brought to many other languages before English even existed:
Acts 2:4 (KJV)
And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.
And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven.
Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language.
And they were all amazed and marvelled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans?
And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born?
Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia,
Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes,
Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.
And God has determined that He will save people from all nations AND languages:
Revelation 5:9 (KJV)
And they sung a new song, saying, Thou art worthy to take the book, and to open the seals thereof: for thou wast slain, and hast redeemed us to God by thy blood out of every kindred, and tongue, and people, and nation;
He does not require people to learn Greek, Hebrew, OR English, including the archaic English of the KJV in order to be saved. Instead He commanded His disciples to “go.”
The Bible describes people such as yourself with passages like this:
1 Timothy 1:6-7 (KJV)
From which some having swerved have turned aside unto vain jangling;
Desiring to be teachers of the law; understanding neither what they say, nor whereof they affirm.
Since I’ve NEVER in my life heard anyone, outside of someone explaining the old, archaic language used in passages like this one, communicate with terms like “jangling,” I will provide the NKJV for anyone else following this thread, even though you and other mockers like you may harden your hearts against the truth:
1 Timothy 1:6-7 NKJV
from which some, having strayed, have turned aside to idle talk, desiring to be teachers of the law, understanding neither what they say nor the things which they affirm.
The Greek word that KJV translates as “vain jangling” is Mataiologia. (This is used only on this one occasion in the scriptures.) It derives from Mataiologos (which is also used only once, in Titus). You may recognize the “logos” part of this word, which means “word.” There is a lot more to the concept of logos than a simple word-to-word translation. And this is one of the reasons that the KJV translators specifically explained in their preface that they did NOT use a word-for-word method.
A person may “jangle” their keys, but in modern English this word has no significance or meaning in regard to the words spoken as the original scriptures DID. And, that according to the Bible which you claim to believe, makes your insistence on KJV ONLY, barbaric.
The first part of this word comes from Mataios, which can be defined as follows:
Definition
1. devoid of force, truth, success, result
2. useless, of no purpose
See http://www.biblestudytools.com/lexicons/greek/kjv/mataios.html .
Nowhere in the Greek is any implication that the false teachers Paul was describing sounded like “jangling” in the sense of today’s dictionary meaning. To understand this verse requires either referring back to the Greek or consulting a dictionary (which turns out to be not very helpful).
But according to KJV-ONLY types such as yourself, it is Bibles like NKJV that “add to the Word of God.” You are just wrong. You are stubbornly resisting the Spirit of God with the same religious and prideful fervor of the apostate Pharisees who opposed Christ.
The translators of the KJV themselves, as I’ve quoted, did not place their final translation nor any earlier edition of it, above correction. They did not consider themselves prophets but translators, just as they said of the 70 who translated the Septuagint.
Claiming that God divinely controlled the translation of the KJV so that no errors could be made is false. They made multiple revisions. Do you think the original autographs of Paul, Peter, or John went through many drafts before becoming scriptures? Or did they speak, moved by the Holy Spirit? Where are the infallible jots and tiddles of the KJV? Did they pass away?
The KJV is a TRANSLATION of scripture, making it the Word of God. I’ve already quoted the KJV translators on this. THEY do not agree with you or your KJV-ONLY group.
God has used the KJV in a great way for centuries. He also used the Word of God in other languages before English even existed. And He continues to use TRANSLATIONS of His Holy Word today in modern, correctly-spelled and -punctuated, English. There is no sacrosanct validity to insisting that God can ONLY bless passages like 1 Timothy 1:6-7 when using the term “jangling” rather than the accurately translated “idle words.”
Your arguments are wrong, divisive, and contrary to the Word of God. And you are inviting the judgment of God upon yourself by continuing on this path.