mrs.don-o: The one place where I would differ from you, is that I would point out the tightly related significance of noun and verb. All these nouns have a meaning directly derived from, and dependent upon their verbs.
>> However, the verb used in 1 Cor 4:15 which some have translated as "father" has no such association. That's the significant difference that needs to be understood. <<<
My point to mrs.d was the verb in 1 Corinthians 4:15, which many have understood to be a noun, is not derived from patera. Nor was it to be capitalized as she did in her original post.
More from Strongs.
b. in a Jewish sense, of one who brings others over to his way of life: ὑμᾶς ἐγέννησα I am the author of your Christian life, 1 Corinthians 4:15; Philemon 1:10 (Sanhedr. fol. 19, 2 "If one teaches the son of his neighbor the law, the Scripture reckons this the same as though he had begotten him"; (cf. Philo, leg. ad Gaium § 8)).
Context is again your friend in understanding Scripture.
Paul is not saying he should be called "Father" as used by the RCC today.
Nor is this justification for the RCC priesthood and calling their priests "Father".
To infer such is a huge leap...but that hasn't stopped Roman Catholicism in the past nor do I doubt it will stop it in the future.
The injunction against calling "no man father" remains with no contradiction.