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To: ealgeone
Your assertion that the verb in the First Corinthians passage "which some have translated as "father" has no such association" when the verb is related to the noun is contradicted by the scriptures which I listed. Matthew clearly shows those doing the "begetting" are "fathers." There is a direct correlation between the verb and the noun in the First Corinthians passage, whether a particular translation uses "fathered" or "have begotten" (which the KJV does).

Thus is does not matter which translation one uses for the verb in the Corinthians passage. It still means though Timothy had many teachers in the Messiah, he did not have many fathers, because the Apostle Paul fathered, or begot, him in the Gospel. Thus the Apostle Paul was a spiritual father to Saint Timothy.
53 posted on 05/05/2017 8:36:30 PM PDT by af_vet_1981 (The bus came by and I got on, That's when it all began.)
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To: af_vet_1981; Mrs. Don-o
Let's get the context of the conversation in proper perspective first. Your cut and past job misses that.

mrs.don-o: The one place where I would differ from you, is that I would point out the tightly related significance of noun and verb. All these nouns have a meaning directly derived from, and dependent upon their verbs.

>> However, the verb used in 1 Cor 4:15 which some have translated as "father" has no such association. That's the significant difference that needs to be understood. <<<

My point to mrs.d was the verb in 1 Corinthians 4:15, which many have understood to be a noun, is not derived from patera. Nor was it to be capitalized as she did in her original post.

More from Strongs.

b. in a Jewish sense, of one who brings others over to his way of life: ὑμᾶς ἐγέννησα I am the author of your Christian life, 1 Corinthians 4:15; Philemon 1:10 (Sanhedr. fol. 19, 2 "If one teaches the son of his neighbor the law, the Scripture reckons this the same as though he had begotten him"; (cf. Philo, leg. ad Gaium § 8)).

Context is again your friend in understanding Scripture.

Paul is not saying he should be called "Father" as used by the RCC today.

Nor is this justification for the RCC priesthood and calling their priests "Father".

To infer such is a huge leap...but that hasn't stopped Roman Catholicism in the past nor do I doubt it will stop it in the future.

The injunction against calling "no man father" remains with no contradiction.

54 posted on 05/06/2017 7:06:52 AM PDT by ealgeone
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