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To: af_vet_1981
I do not understand this complaint. Perhaps it was just a matter of preference. The Hebrew text is correct and the English translation on the Jewish website (Mechon-Mamre) is the same as the KJV.

It does not agree with the KJV overall for it does not show supplied words, which the KJV usually does (normally by italics), as shown by my example (out of vast multitudes) Job 34:10:

Therefore hearken unto me, ye men of understanding: far be it from God, that he should do wickedness; and from the Almighty, that he should commit iniquity. (Job 34:10)

Here the supplied words, though unnecessary, their absence do have any real significance, however, in a case such as John 8:24 and 18:5-6 I think they may:

"I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he , ye shall die in your sins. (John 8:24) "

"They answered him, Jesus of Nazareth. Jesus saith unto them, I am he . And Judas also, which betrayed him, stood with them. As soon then as he had said unto them, I am he , they went backward, and fell to the ground. (John 18:5-6) "

In both cases, from what i can see, the Lord literally said "I am," the same statement that He made in Jn. 8:58,"verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am," (cf. Ex. 3:14) without the "he" in the Greek, which i believe, can be demanded, if not always. Yet i think that Jn. 8:24 infers deity, as does that the soldiers fell down at the declaration "I am," in 18:8.

And as i recalled finding that sometimes the KJV does not distinguish supplied words, and since as explained, i am not being able to read Hebrew, then before i found a source that enabled me to see each word that was in the text at issue, i first sought to ascertain whether your source was a precise word for word English translation, which it is not. .

Hebrew often translates into more English words and here M-M agrees with KJV (I had thought the objection would be about known messianic texts where the Jewish translations, but not the source, differs).

Yes, more words are often necessary in English, but when the focus is on one word which may make a difference (not that it turned out that it really must in our case), then word for word accuracy can be important, just as it might if reading a will in a foreign language.

And i think maybe its time to put this one to bed.

603 posted on 01/13/2017 2:59:37 PM PST by daniel1212 ( Turn to the Lord Jesus as a damned and destitute sinner+ trust Him to save you, then follow Him!)
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To: daniel1212
It does not agree with the KJV overall for it does not show supplied words, which the KJV usually does (normally by italics), as shown by my example (out of vast multitudes) Job 34:10:

Italics ? That is the objection ?

The English translation is the same but the font is different and therefore one who does not read Hebrew cannot discern a word for word translation that is not even feasible anyway because languages differ and that is the nature of translation ?

What a seque for the idea of Sola Scriptura and which Scriptura and whose translation(s) ...
604 posted on 01/13/2017 3:17:18 PM PST by af_vet_1981 (The bus came by and I got on, That's when it all began.)
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To: daniel1212
And i think maybe its time to put this one to bed.

Humpty wants to know:

"Which side can claim victory in this matter?"

620 posted on 01/14/2017 3:54:28 AM PST by Elsie (Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going...)
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