OBJECTION #6: Your interpretation just “spiritualizes” any event that is clearly prophesied that could not have taken place already. The first resurrection, for example, is prophesied many times to accompany the Second Coming. This is a resurrection of ALL believers, living and dead, in which they receive new bodies and then go to reign alongside Christ.
If you argue the Second Coming has happened, you would also have to argue this first resurrection has happened, but it is obvious to any observer that living Christians are still here, in our plain old bodies, and we are not reigning over anything. At that point your only choice is to try to twist the language of Scripture so you can pretend that the words mean something completely different that you can argue might have already happened.
This is a major sign that any method of interpretation is flawed. If it leads to inconsistencies that you have to go to lengths to try to reconcile, then it’s always a bad method, not a good one, because the Word of God is not creating those inconsistencies, so the fault can only lie in the interpretation.
Have the general resurrection and great judgment happened? Yes. At AD 70 hades was abolished per Revelation 20:13. See also Matthew 16:27-28; Acts 17:31; 24:15; Romans 13:11-12 (cf Daniel 12); 2 Timothy 4:1 (Young’s Literal Translation; 1 Peter 4:5,7, 17; Revelation 22:12.
See my article B18 here:
https://prophecyquestions.com/2014/02/01/articles-by-charles-meek/