Are you purposely being stupid?
I don’t have the originals, Strongs base their definitions on the earliest texts...
You never answered my question about the strongs root word..
Ok, then don't make false claims. You said earlier:
Every translation has it's flaws and mistranslated context when compared to the original text.
Earliest texts and original text are two entirely different things.
And who cares if they have the same root, they mean entirely different things depending on the context they are used in. The word "damned" is used three times in the KJV, the word "damnable" is used 1 time, and the word "damnation" is used 11 times.
In every instance those words are used in the most severe sense of the word and pertain to eternal damnation, damned to hell fire, which is something only God Almighty can do.
The word "condemn" and all of it's various forms is used quite often, and can pertain to everything from simple disapproval, to putting someone to death, as well as people who are lost.
The question is, did the KJV translators use the right words in the proper context, and of course I believe they did, you don't, but again who cares what you believe, your name calling just proved to me, and to most everyone, that answering your straw man arguments, are not worth a second more of my time. Bye!