The only verse I can find to indicate that this is possible is the one about the thief on the cross:
Oh! Oh! Bro, I have to be a punctuation monitor here. Seriesly, that semicolon does NOT belong there! At least, not in the Av, DRB, or Darby versions, and certainly not in the Greek. And it is not the whole verse either, thus can be easily misinterpreted:
"And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise" (Lk. 23:43 AV).
Being a little more particular, the translators were saying:
"And Jesus said unto him, . . ." (and here Luke's eyewitness qoutes Jesus) "Verily I say unto thee, . . ." (and here Jesus quotes Himself, a quote within a quote) " 'To day shalt thou be with me in paradise.' " (Jesus ends his sentence and thus his own quote; whereupon the eyewitness's quote of what Jesus said also ends.
What your semicolon does is to wrongly divide the Word to say:
"And Jesus said unto him, Verily I say unto thee to day; . . ." (that sometime in the future, who knows when?) ". . . thou shalt be with me in paradise."
Oooops!