Jesus mentions tittle, which is said to be the dot that indicates a vowel sound. How does that square with the accepted explanation that Hebrew vowel markings weren’t used until hundreds of years after Jesus?
Specifically, a dot-tot-tit-tittle keraia/chireq. Jesus mentioned it twice, on two recorded occasions, once in Matthew and once in Luke, either of which is in both the Textus Receptus and in the Critical Text (which is supposedly from texts far earlier than the Ben Asher Masorah). And that is exactly what he meant. You do know that the jot-iota-yodh is specifically mentioned in Psalm 119:73, don't you
In the Vulgate, translated by Jerome about 400AD, the keria/chireq is translated "apex" (apices plural), which refers in Latin to a diacritical mark indicating how the a vowel is pronounced, which is exactly what the vowel-pointing does. But I guess this is boring you, eh?
"Accepted"?? This is of the logic "eat garbage, fifty million flies can't be wrong" kind of thinking. I trust the Preserved Scripture rather than the thoughts of fallible men, no matter how many of them.
But thanks for asking.