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To: daniel1212; metmom; Mark17; HossB86; MHGinTN; Elsie; Salvation; Mrs. Don-o
Rome also considers entering marriage with the intention of never having children to be a "grave wrong and more than likely grounds for an annulment."[McLachlan, P. "Sacrament of Holy Matrimony." http://www.catholicdoors.com/faq/qu164.htm]

“In marriage there is a contract whereby one is bound to pay the other the marital debt: wherefore just as in other contracts, the bond is unfitting if a person bind himself to what he cannot give or do, so the marriage contract is unfitting, if it be made by one who cannot pay the marital debt.”

I wonder if catholics comprehend exactly what they are saying here with the implications for their dogmatic position on the perpetual virginity of Mary?

63 posted on 06/18/2016 7:01:18 PM PDT by ealgeone
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To: ealgeone
We don't know exactly what Mary's plans were --- that is, what was stated in her ketubah with Joseph --- but as a virtuous person she would not have intended to defraud him of his marital right; so it's a reasonable inference from evidence that they did not have the usual ketubah, and thus the usual obligation to have sex.

Judaism does not have a tradition of consecrated celibates, but we do now from Scripture (Luke 2:37) that the prophetess Anna never left the Temple, but pray there night and day after she was widowed. Sometimes I wonder if Mary anticipated a similar celibate vocation (as virgin rather than widow) and thus realized that she was somehow similarly consecrated ---although she did not know beforehand that the reason was that she was to be the Mother of God.

ketubah, or at least was in some way agreed. After all if it were a common, ordinary marriage, it would have been a violation of fidelity on her part to have a baby by somebody else.

100 posted on 06/19/2016 6:49:19 AM PDT by Mrs. Don-o (Jesus, my Lord, my God, my All.)
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To: ealgeone

Second version, hopefully without typos!!

We don't know exactly what Mary's plans were --- that is, what was stated in her ketubah with Joseph --- but as a virtuous person she would not have intended to defraud him of his marital right. So it's a reasonable inference from evidence that they did not have the usual ketubah, and thus the usual obligation to have sex.

Judaism does not have a tradition of consecrated celibates, but we do know from Scripture (Luke 2:37) that the prophetess Anna never left the Temple, but prayed there night and day after she was widowed. Sometimes I wonder if Mary anticipated a similar celibate vocation (as virgin rather than widow) and thus realized that she was somehow similarly consecrated ---although she did not know beforehand that the reason was that she was to be the Mother of God.

In any case I cannot assume she would defraud Joseph of the marital union to which he would have otherwise had an honorable right. So I can only suppose that continence was a part of their ketubah, or at least was in some way agreed.

After all, if it were a common, ordinary marriage, it would have been a violation of fidelity on her part to have a baby by somebody else.

101 posted on 06/19/2016 6:55:38 AM PDT by Mrs. Don-o (Jesus, my Lord, my God, my All.)
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