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"If a couple mutually agrees to not engage in sexual intercourse (or have what’s called a Josephite marriage), then that marriage is valid because they are able to consummate the marriage (which is not the case in impotent unions). But it is also dissoluble, since the two have not become 'one flesh.' (Canon 1142)

If Joseph didn't intend on having sex with Mary, if they were in a mutually agreed upon sexless marriage arrangement, then why did he intend to divorce her when she turns up pregnant?

Canon ain't Scripture. Nowhere does God ever refer to a *Josephite* marriage. That's a complete fabrication by the Catholic church to bolster their arguments in favor of Mary remaining a virgin, which Scripture tells us didn't happen.

If Joseph didn't intend on having sex with Mary, if they were in a mutually agreed upon sexless marriage arrangement, then why did he intend to divorce her when she turns up pregnant?

Uh, I dunno, maybe because they reached their agreement AFTER her pregnancy was discovered?

Ya think that might be a possibility? Yeah no don't bother answering I'm sure it will be something like, "That can't be because we know the perpetual virginity is a lie". "How do we know that?" "Because Scripture doesn't support it". "How do we know that?" "Because the perpetual virginjty is a lie".

Spare me the circularity. Please.