Same question: what would bring post-VII changes into question? In other words, what would make them invalid, and thus, inapplicable?
I already explained this. The fact that it allows non-Catholics to receive communion without conversion...something the Church never allowed previously. If you think that’s okay then I guess it makes sense for you to refer to it when discussing other matters. Personally, I don’t trust it and will stick with what the good Cardinal said at Vatican I.
I think we’re done here.