You are reading something into it that is not there.
These Jews were ALREADY BELIEVERS. Paul recognized them as such.
He merely asks “Did you receive the Holy Spirit when you believed?” and they said no because they did not know if the Holy spirit had come yet.
What was John’s baptism to the Jews? The baptism of repentance for THE REMISSION OF SIN. and they were to look for the one to come after him who would baptize them with the Holy Spirit.
So why would they need to be rebaptized since they had already been baptized by JOHN?
In an old commentary and study bible printed in England over a hundred twenty five years ago I found the answer, they weren’t.
This is the way this verse is in our bibles.
And Paul said, “John baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people that they should believe on him that should come after him, that is, on Jesus.”
And when they heard this, they were baptized into the name of the Lord Jesus.
This is the way the old English commentary and bible has it printed. Note the quotation marks.
And Paul said, “John baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people that they should believe on him that should come after him, that is, on Jesus. And when they heard this, they (who heard John speak) were baptized into the name of the Lord Jesus.”
The Englishman’s Greek texts has it a little different, “And having heard they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.”
And in the ancient Greek texts those sentences are run together without gaps or punctuation.
This would mean that those men who heard Paul were not rebaptized, no need for it, but merely had hands laid on them.
Of course, most churches teach the opposite, but being rebaptized makes no sense except to an immersionist.
Huh? They went to John to be baptized by him, who then told them to believe on the One to come afterward, and then he baptized them again?
Seriously? You go digging through the archives for this stuff as a way around the plain teaching of the Scriptures?
See ya ‘round.