To: ealgeone
Mary made a sin-offering because it was mandated in the Law. Doing so was not a profession of personal sin. FAILING to do so WOULD have been a sin.
Attempting to make this passage into evidence for Mary’s sinfulness is abuse of Scripture. There is no basis for the assertion that this passage was intended by the author to answer that question.
To: Arthur McGowan
Nice try....but Leviticus makes it clear this is a sin offering.
To: Arthur McGowan
Attempting to make this passage into evidence for Mary’s sinfulness is abuse of Scripture. Attempting to make ANY passage into evidence for Mary’s UNsinfulness is abuse of Scripture!
1,001 posted on
08/25/2015 10:45:57 AM PDT by
Elsie
(Heck is where people, who don't believe in Gosh, think they are not going...)
To: Arthur McGowan
Attempting to make this passage into evidence for Mary’s sinfulness is abuse of Scripture. There is no basis for the assertion that this passage was intended by the author to answer that question. Then why does Leviticus call this a sin offering??
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