What is "complete assent"? What does that even mean...
Luke 1:38a And Mary said, “Behold, I am the servant of the Lord; let it be to me according to your word.”
If Mary did not give complete assent to the Incarnation, is God a rapist?
This is the wackiest thing I've ever heard. I know that Catholics assert that scripture should not be interpreted by laymen, but come on! How is Mary's statement to be understood except as complete assent?
If Jesus received a tainted human nature from his mother, how could he be wholly conformed to the will of his Father?
What? Why would Jesus receive a tainted human nature from Mary? By the same reasoning, Mary would have received a tainted human nature from her mother. Either Jesus is a special case, or it's turtles all the way down.
Besides, if Mary didn't have a tainted human nature, is she really one of us?
There is no atonement without the Immaculate Conception.
Worst reasoning ever!
Mary being one of us therefore could not have given complete assent to God's invitation if she had suffered as we do from the consequences of Adam's sin.
How is Mary's statement to be understood except as complete assent?
How indeed? For the angel had just greeted her as "kecharitomene".
Why would Jesus receive a tainted human nature from Mary?
She is the sole source of his human nature. Everything human about Jesus comes from Mary. I hope you are not suggesting Jesus is less than fully human. If he is fully human, it can only be from his mother, and only because she gave herself to the divine plan wholly and without reservation -- something you or I could never do. Jesus could not be the only "special case", because the Father didn't snatch her off the street; he asked her permission.
Mary's as much one of us as Jesus, who as the new Adam could not have achieved the atonement unless he'd been one of us as much as his mother:
"above all women glorified,
Our tainted nature's solitary boast"