Having the bride, the church, in heaven while the tribulation is going on (getting married you say), you must have read into Revelation text somewhere, where?
The only mention of the marriage of the Lamb I find in Revelation, I find at the end of the tribulation (Rev. 19:1-9)...and only then is she said to have gotten herself ready. Obviously, it has taken the tribulation for her to have gotten herself ready.
The pretrib spin on the marriage of the Lamb, is but another in a long list of inferences they believe “proves” a pretrib rapture. But inferences is not what you need - inferences = passages you believe that “infers” a pretrib rapture - what you need is an actual statement somewhere clearly setting forth your doctrine, setting forth an additional parousia separate from the one Jesus taught in Matt. 24:29-31.
Something by Paul like this: “Jesus taught only one parousia to his disciples on the mount of Olives, behold, I bring a tremendous new revelation, there are two parousias! one before the tribulation, another one after it. To differentiate the two, we will call the first one the “rapture.” Or something to this effect.
If you can produce such a statement, and you DO need one for such a dramatic thing as you propose, an additional parousia from the one Jesus set forth in his olivet discourse, then you will have a case. Until you can come up with such a statement, then all you have are a bunch of inferences. Which, in every instance all you are doing is reading your presupposed additional parousia into the word of God.
The battle of Armageddon ends the Tribulation...That takes place after the Wedding...
“The pretrib spin on the marriage of the Lamb, is but another in a long list of inferences they believe “proves” a pretrib rapture.”
It’s all circular logic. In order for the Scriptures to seem compatible with the idea, they must be interpreted with a pre-trib rapture belief already in mind, paying no mind to any other contradictions or inconsistencies that such an interpretation creates.