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To: af_vet_1981
Yes, some sins are committed in ignorance.  For example, there could be a Muslim man raised to believe honor killing is virtuous, and so he kills his daughter for becoming too western.  He sincerely believes he is right. Did he sin willfully? That is, was his will involved in his sinful act?

Again, to restate my earlier question, can there be any such thing as a sin that does not involve an act of the will?

But let's now say our poor Muslim friend makes a profession of Christian faith, learns that honor-killing is actually murder, but goes ahead and kills his second daughter because he doesn't like the way she is dressing.  What then?  Can he be forgiven?  He had some knowledge of the truth, and sinned anyway.  Your use of Hebrews 10:26 does not allow forgiveness for a willful act of sin after conversion.  As I understand what you have said, any such act results in permanent exclusion from the benefits of Christ's sacrifice. 

So let's say the now ex-Muslim professing Christian comes to you as his pastoral adviser and repents in sincere grief that he has done wrong, and now wishes to be restored.  What would you tell him?  No?  You had knowledge, and you did a terrible, sinful thing anyway, so too bad, story over, go home and wait for hell?  Is that your position?

BTW, I notice that your response here is still just your own private interpretation.  No infallible Roman source cited.  How do you know, for example, you are using the official, infallible definition for "willfully" as it is used in this passage?  More importantly, how do I know I'm not dealing with your own, personal, eclectic view of this passage (the AF Church of One Willful Sin Damnation - great name for a denomination, don't you think?) versus the official, infallible view of Rome?  

Peace,

SR


237 posted on 05/26/2015 10:37:20 PM PDT by Springfield Reformer (Winston Churchill: No Peace Till Victory!)
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To: Springfield Reformer
Yes, some sins are committed in ignorance. For example, there could be a Muslim man raised to believe honor killing is virtuous, and so he kills his daughter for becoming too western. He sincerely believes he is right. Did he sin willfully? That is, was his will involved in his sinful act? Again, to restate my earlier question, can there be any such thing as a sin that does not involve an act of the will?

I do not recall a single case where the lawyers that posed these types of questions to the Messiah profited thereby. My advice, is to take these scriptural warnings to heart, so to speak, and profit thereby.

238 posted on 05/27/2015 3:58:37 AM PDT by af_vet_1981 (The bus came by and I got on, That's when it all began.)
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To: Springfield Reformer
BTW, I notice that your response here is still just your own private interpretation. No infallible Roman source cited. How do you know, for example, you are using the official, infallible definition for "willfully" as it is used in this passage? More importantly, how do I know I'm not dealing with your own, personal, eclectic view of this passage (the AF Church of One Willful Sin Damnation - great name for a denomination, don't you think?) versus the official, infallible view of Rome?

Wilt thou also become a Roman ?

239 posted on 05/27/2015 4:17:53 AM PDT by af_vet_1981 (The bus came by and I got on, That's when it all began.)
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