[rbmillerjr]

You need to prove an authority has excluded this book of the Word of God.

So, by what authority do you make this claim?

I’m not interested in the DeprogramLiberalism denominations interpretation. This argument is completely about appeal to authority. What is yours?

Otherwise we are back to the silly concoction that we can not only have 30,000 different sects, but the same number of canon.

[DeprogramLiberalism]

>>>You need to prove an authority has excluded this book of the Word of God.

So, by what authority do you make this claim?

I’m not interested in the DeprogramLiberalism denominations interpretation. This argument is completely about appeal to authority. What is yours?

Otherwise we are back to the silly concoction that we can not only have 30,000 different sects, but the same number of canon.<<<

Such nonsense. I only need to illustrate that James does not line up with other Bible documents, which I have done with not one substantive counterargument put forth by RCs or even Protestants on this thread. You said yourself: "God’s Word does not contradict itself." The epistle of James contradicts other Bible authors on a number of important matters. By your own reasoning the epistle of James is not canonical.

Again, will you address my evidence point on point? Well, of course you won't. Because you can't. You are defeated before you even begin.

[daniel1212]

You need to prove an authority has excluded this book of the Word of God. So, by what authority do you make this claim?

A very good question. Scripturally what is the basis for authority to do anything ? And the basis for the veracity of conflicting Truth claims?

Some say intellectual prowess, but in essence it seems that the RC argument is that an assuredly (if conditionally) infallible magisterium is essential for determination and assurance of Truth (including which writings and men are of God), and to fulfill promises of Divine presence, providence of Truth, and preservation of faith, and authority. (Jn. 14:16,26; 15:26; 16:13; Mt. 16:18; Lk. 10:16)

And that being the historical instruments and stewards of Divine revelation (oral and written) means that such is that infallible magisterium. Thus any who knowingly dissent from the latter must be in rebellion to God. Does this fairly represent what you hold to or in what way does it differ?