[DeprogramLiberalism]

Perhaps you could also explain another conundrum that Steelfish seems not to be able to do. From your repost of him:

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Here’s an example of sheer nonsense. He tells us:

“Why would Jesus say, “For God so loved the world” - past tense? Why would He not have said, “For God so loves the world” - present tense? Would it not make more sense, if God does indeed love the world?”

It does not occur to Deprogrammerliberalism that when we discuss God doing an action from outside time, we are often stuck with either using past tense or present tense when really God’s actions are not past, present or future, they are all of them and none of them.

But this is what happens when Bible Christians don’t have an Augustine or Aquinas or Newman, or the early Church fathers.

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Augustine called God the eternal-now-god. His explanation is that God can see everything in all of the past and all of the future as if it were all present tense. So why did Christ say, “For God so loved the world” - past tense? Was he not as informed as Augustine?

[smvoice]

Uh, I think God used “loved the world” because His plan for man was made from the foundation of the world, and in the case of this present age, “from before the foundation of the world.” Ephesians. Before He even created this earth, the plan was in place. That’s why He says “loved”.

[editor-surveyor]

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>> “Why would Jesus say, “For God so loved the world” - past tense? Why would He not have said, “For God so loves the world” - present tense? Would it not make more sense, if God does indeed love the world?” <<

When Yeshua said those words, the giving of his son was a past event, or Yeshua would not have been walking the Earth in a mortal body.
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