My position, and that of Scripture, is mot untenable, nor is it unpleasant to the spiritual person. Here's where the doctrine of imputation comes in.
Romans 5:13 tells us that ". . . sin is not imputed when there is no law."
The newborn baby (brephos) has no knowledge of the law, nor accountably to it. Therefore no sin is imputed to it. Dying then or shortly thereafter, with no sin is imputed, what is to hinder him/her from heaven? In fact, one might take it back to the preborn child who through umhappy miscarriage or deliberate rejection the child is murdered aforetime, why, sin not being imputed, would this little soul not go directly to be with the Lord? What is your problem with this?
You did not discuss lack of imputation in your first post. Infants go to paradise immediately upon death-even the infant born of pagans. Of course no sin is imputed to them. The age at which imputation of sin occurs is left to God’s judgement. I think God will respect human good faith judgement on the issue. “Suffer the little children to come unto me.”
The basic problem with this theology is there isn’t any convenient place where you begin to hold anybody morally accountable...and as any parent of a toddler in a tantrum knows...good luck with that!
In fact, this verse argues the exact opposite of what you are putting into it:
"Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned: (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law. Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come. But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many" (Rom 5:12-15)
So if death enters "by sin," but if there is no law there is no sin, why then do people die who have no law? The "neveretheless, death reigned from Adam to Moses," would imply that there must have been some law prior to the coming of Moses of which they were all being destroyed for. And that can only be the "offense of one" which was being imputed upon all the descendants of Adam. This also does not speak of merely having the "ability" to sin, but condemns them for "all have sinned," including children, which can only be true if all humanity was involved in the sin of Adam.
The author and his adherents take the untenable position of the pedophile. Every pedophile imputes the sin to the child/infant. It was an act of will that the baby wanted to be molested. It’s the doctrine of Molech and it is despicable and unsupportable from Holy Scripture.