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To: Colofornian

I don’t read the early church “fathers” much. 254 AD is middle of 3rd century. And whatever decision they made, it’s still unscriptural.


21 posted on 03/07/2015 1:01:27 PM PST by imardmd1 (Fiat Lux)
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To: imardmd1; All
I don’t read the early church “fathers” much. 254 AD is middle of 3rd century. And whatever decision they made, it’s still unscriptural.

This wasn't a situation where infant baptism wasn't practiced and they "decided" to implement it in 254 A.D.

It was a situation where there WAS NO controversy in the Church about its open practice in the first, second, and third centuries! No controversy at all, and not even raised as an "issue" until mid-3rd century.

And when the 66 existing bishops reviewed it...men who were born within just over a 100 years from when the apostle John died, they simply affirmed its already existing widespread practice!

25 posted on 03/07/2015 1:07:03 PM PST by Colofornian
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To: imardmd1

Wrong. The apostles baptised WHOLE FAMILIES.


45 posted on 03/07/2015 2:17:49 PM PST by NKP_Vet
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