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To: metmom; boatbums; RnMomof7
Metmom I noticed that you have been on another thread and may have forgotten to answer these questions. Boatbums and Rnmomof 7 maybe one or both of you could ask her why she keeps dodging my direct questions.

So three questions: 1) Is it common for prots to post with out sourcing for validity?

2) Who gave James the authority to promulgate this definition?

3) Why is his definition more valid than anyone elses?

You ran from answering these questions before, let's see how you handle it now.

784 posted on 03/03/2015 3:08:51 PM PST by verga (I might as well be playing Chess with a pigeon.)
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To: verga; metmom; boatbums; RnMomof7

Those Sola Scriptura definitions have been shown to Catholics enough times now that any repeated twisting of the meaning can only be considered intentional. Wasting time down your rabbit trail is folly.


785 posted on 03/03/2015 3:32:14 PM PST by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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To: verga
You ran from answering these questions before, let's see how you handle them now.

Oh Master: your questions are so.. I so... so LOADED!

859 posted on 03/04/2015 2:24:35 AM PST by Elsie
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