So three questions: 1) Is it common for prots to post with out sourcing for validity?
2) Who gave James the authority to promulgate this definition?
3) Why is his definition more valid than anyone elses?
You ran from answering these questions before, let's see how you handle it now.
Those Sola Scriptura definitions have been shown to Catholics enough times now that any repeated twisting of the meaning can only be considered intentional. Wasting time down your rabbit trail is folly.
Oh Master: your questions are so.. I so... so LOADED!