True. Jesus spoke in proverbs, metaphors, parables.
And immediately after speaking so to the crowds, he would explain the meaning of his parables to the disciples. Those explanations are also recorded in the gospels.
So, according to the Scriptures, Jesus did not speak ONLY in metaphors and parables.
When it comes to the Eucharist, we are NOT told that Jesus explained to the disciples privately that he was speaking in metaphor only, when he said we must gnaw and chew his body, and drink his blood.
And immediately after speaking so to the crowds, he would explain the meaning of his parables to the disciples. Those explanations are also recorded in the gospels.
So let's make sure we make your position clear for the readers at home.
Jesus has His Last Supper with His disciples, during which He establishes the practice of Communion (or the Eucharist, if you prefer). In this, He says "this is my Body, this is my Blood", etc.
RIGHT AFTER the meal and BEFORE leaving the room, Jesus is speaking to His disciples and tells them "I have spoken to you in proverbs..."
And YOUR argument is that Jesus was talking about things He had said to them at other times, but specifically NOT about what He had been telling them just before making that statement, even though a literal interpretation of those statements would have indicated a command from Jesus to violate a Law of God that had been in effect for thousands of years.
Now THAT is a feat of logical gymnastics that would get a 10.0 even from the East German judge!
Don't you know that not everything Jesus ever said has been recorded???
(See how that works?)
Sure we were.
John 6:63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.
Catholics just refuse to believe it.