The Greek word in NO WAY denotes "full of grace". It means "favored with grace". The Greek word for "full" is pleres and is NOT used for Mary but IS used for Christ and Stephen. If the Holy Spirit meant to refer to Mary as "full of grace" He would have used the same words He used for Stephen and Christ but He DID NOT.
So Mary was “favored” with God’s grace, or grace had been “bestowed” on her; however, she was not “full” of grace. How much grace did God grant her, then? One-half of her capacity of grace? Two-thirds? I think you are standing on your head , semantically, to avoid asking yourself how she came by grace at all prior to Redemption without being specially gifted by God. And yes, to the Catholic understanding, being full of grace implies freedom from original and personal sin.
So Mary was “favored” with God’s grace, or grace had been “bestowed” on her; however, she was not “full” of grace. How much grace did God grant her, then? One-half of her capacity of grace? Two-thirds? I think you are standing on your head , semantically, to avoid asking yourself how she came by grace at all prior to Redemption without being specially gifted by God. And yes, to the Catholic understanding, being full of grace implies freedom from original and personal sin.