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Sorry, ES, but that's as bogus as it gets. From the Septuagint version of Exodus, chapter 17:

9 εἶπεν δὲ Μωυσῆς τῷ Ἰησοῦ ἐπίλεξον σεαυτῷ ἄνδρας δυνατοὺς καὶ ἐξελθὼν παράταξαι τῷ Αμαληκ αὔριον καὶ ἰδοὺ ἐγὼ ἕστηκα ἐπὶ τῆς κορυφῆς τοῦ βουνοῦ καὶ ἡ ῥάβδος τοῦ θεοῦ ἐν τῇ χειρί μου
10 καὶ ἐποίησεν Ἰησοῦς καθάπερ εἶπεν αὐτῷ Μωυσῆς καὶ ἐξελθὼν παρετάξατο τῷ Αμαληκ καὶ Μωυσῆς καὶ Ααρων καὶ Ωρ ἀνέβησαν ἐπὶ τὴν κορυφὴν τοῦ βουνοῦ

Available here: http://www.sacred-texts.com/bib/sep/exo017.htm#009

which translates in the KJV as follows:

9 And Moses said unto Joshua, Choose us out men, and go out, fight with Amalek: to morrow I will stand on the top of the hill with the rod of God in mine hand.
10 So Joshua did as Moses had said to him, and fought with Amalek: and Moses, Aaron, and Hur went up to the top of the hill.
(Exodus 17:9-10)

So unless you're willing to say the translators of the LXX were putting this same curse acronym on Joshua the Son of Nun, then you have no case. Because as between Jesus and Joshua, the two forms in Greek are identical.

What about the alleged acronym? Here's the expression "Obliterate his name and memory," from this article: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Yimakh_shemo :

ימח שמו וזכרו

Taking each of the first letters, we get this (remember, Hebrew reads from right to left):

ישו

which is the modern, secular Hebrew spelling of the name of Jesus. However, the original name Yehoshua is quite different.

יְהוֹשֻׁ֗עַ

During the Babylonian period, the name was contracted, dropping the second syllable, so Yehoshua became the shorter Yeshua:

ישוע

The Greek, as noted above, is just a transliteration of this shortened form. The final "s" is added because that's how Greek prefers to see proper names. There is absolutely no basis for the claim that the Greek name originated with the proposed acronym. It would be like saying the GOP was called that originally because it matched the acronym for "Goofballs On Parade." No, the acronym was invented well after the name first appeared, and we know what the name originally meant before the false acronym was applied to it.

Likewise, anyone's good name can be wrongfully tarnished in this way. Defamation is very easy to do if one is willing to do it. Which is why we must insist that such accusers show their work. So, ES, if you have any undiscovered notes from the Septuagint translators, or anyone else contemporary to that period, showing they used that curse in acronym form as a name for Jesus, the world is waiting for your earth-shattering discovery. Bring it forth, if you can. I for one will not be holding my breath.

BTW, as for why the English translators used Jesus and Joshua for the same name, the KJV translators rule seems rather simple. In English, at the time of that translation, both Joshua and Jesus were valid variations of the same name, not unlike "sean" versus "john." Those also are the same name in terms of Hebrew origin. So in the OT, they used Joshua consistently, because the driving text for that was the Hebrew, and in the NT they used Jesus in all places, even when the reference was to Joshua son of Nun, because this represented the greatest consistency with the inspired Greek text. So we have here Joshua being called Jesus:

For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.
(Hebrews 4:8)

Which also our fathers that came after brought in with Jesus into the possession of the Gentiles, whom God drave out before the face of our fathers, unto the days of David;
(Acts 7:45)

So if your translators were invoking a curse, at least it included old Joshua. But the reality is the whole argument is based on the flimsiest possible innuendo, and I have absolutely no doubt in my heart and mind that it has been invented by the prince of darkness himself, to spread darkness rather than light and to insult the wonderful name of our blessed Lord Jesus, because he truly hates the power in that name, which I myself have witnesses in the throwing down of the evil one's power. That's why, try as you might, I believe you will never find a hard factual source for the theory. It originated in someone's imagination, at the prompting of the evil one. But I can tell you from experience that the powers of darkness take flight at that name, Jesus, despite our imperfections of speech. They know, and God knows, who we are talking about. When we call on His name, does He hear it in perfect Hebrew? Or perfect faith? Which would you rather have in the heat of battle?

Peace,

SR