I agree, the inter-testament period did not have the greater light they had in the NT... of course. My point was, where did such technical terminology as “the last day,” and “this world, and the world to come,” come from if it didn’t come from the inter-testament period? Such terminology the NT uses in a foundational way, adding detail to it, but not changing the basics of it.
Your view, seems to posit drastic renovations to that basic outline, as if they had it wrong, I think not.
On the timing of the rapture being the mystery revealed by Paul, I don’t agree with you. The particular take you have on 1 Cor. 15 seems pretty standard with both yourself and the pretribs. Nothing, however, is said in 1 Cor. 15:50-55, about the timing of the rapture being the mystery, it is bodily translation that is the mystery revealed.
This passage is not a revealing of a pretrib or prewrath rapture...as the mystery. Rather the translation of the body at the post-trib 2nd coming.
The timing of it is in verse 54, where Paul quotes Isa. 25:8, the setting of that passage in Isaiah is at the ushering in of the millennial - premill expositors agree on that. Following the cosmic catastrophism of the previous chapter, it more likely describes the singular event of the post-tribs rather than that of the prewraths, or the pretribs.
A good example of basic OT prophetic truth, in this case the resurrection/rapture of Isa. 25:8, NOT being reinvented in the NT, but being built upon, more detail supplied (the translation of our bodies). True, not only of Isa. 25:8, but of such inter-advent terminology as “the last day,” and “this world, and the world to come.”
“Nothing, however, is said in 1 Cor. 15:50-55, about the timing of the rapture being the mystery, it is bodily translation that is the mystery revealed.”
Yes, I agree. I perhaps did not express that clearly. But you are correct.
Do you consider the last day and the day of the Lord to refer to the same thing? How would you define the Day of the Lord in relation to the second coming?