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To: aMorePerfectUnion
Hmmm . . . trundling up the Greek (2 years of Classical in university).

The Greek word "kecharitomene" is a past-perfect participle. This means that the action was completed fully and perfectly in the past. The Virgin Mary was "graced" from all time, completely.

She was not sinless of her own volition - she received it through grace by virtue of her Son's sacrifice.

37 posted on 12/08/2014 5:49:29 PM PST by AnAmericanMother (Ecce Crucem Domini, fugite partes adversae. Vicit Leo de Tribu Iuda, Radix David, Alleluia!)
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To: AnAmericanMother
AnAmericanMother,

Thanks for your post. I too have a background in Greek. Just a few days ago this was discussed and here is part of the response I posted. Sorry to recycle. It is not from lack of respect for you. It gets old posting the same things over and over from scratch...and it's been a long day.

Mary was highly “favored” (Gr. kecharitomene) because God chose to bestow upon her a special grace (“favor,” Gr. charis). Eph. 1:6, the only other New Testament occurrence of kecharitomene).

Here is Eph. 1:6 compare:

“to the praise of the glory of His grace, which He freely bestowed on us in the Beloved.”

Please note that God chose to freely bestow this grace upon us in Christ. Not based on any merit - exacly as in the case of Mary - but because He is gracious.

Both instances in the Scripture of the word kecharitomene are used in an identical way. Grace is bestowed because of God’s free choice.

Mary was highly blessed to receive His gracious choice of her as the one to bear Messiah. All believers are highly blessed to receive His gracious eternal life in Christ.

In both cases, God decreed and accomplished His sovereign grace in eternity past. To go directly to your claim. He chose these actions and they were accomplished in eternity past.

The angel’s address to Mary means simply, Hail, thou that art the especially chosen and favoured of the Most High, to attain the honour every Jewish woman has wanted to have.

No where does the Scripture teach she was immaculate.
No Apostle refers to her this way.
No passage affirms this of Mary.
No support for this idea in any contemporaneous:

Christian literature
Christian artworks
Secular writings
Secular artworks

Nothing in before 100 ad supports this idea. It comes into the Church later - much later.

best to you


48 posted on 12/08/2014 8:24:15 PM PST by aMorePerfectUnion ( "I didn't leave the Central Oligarchy Party. It left me." - Ronaldus Maximus)
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To: AnAmericanMother

**The Greek word “kecharitomene” is a past-perfect participle. This means that the action was completed fully and perfectly in the past.**

God knew in advance that Mary would obey His desires. He simply had the angel let her know that it was by his grace (unmeritted favor) that she would be PERMITTED to be mother to the Son.

**The Virgin Mary was “graced” from all time, completely.**

I think some popes had some ‘really good stuff’ in the medicine cabinet.


50 posted on 12/08/2014 8:33:13 PM PST by Zuriel (Acts 2:38,39....Do you believe it?)
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To: AnAmericanMother
She was not sinless of her own volition - she received it through grace by virtue of her Son's sacrifice.

It removes her free will then.

67 posted on 12/08/2014 11:35:34 PM PST by metmom (...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of our faith...)
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