The author is twisting Scripture for his own purposes. In John 9 the Pharisees told a man healed by Jesus that he had been completely born in sin, but this writer is twisting that and all God’s Word. See my post 1.
Thank you very much. I had not recalled that verse because it is not usually Viewed as a prescient pronouncement of an original sin doctrine for all of mankind ( but only an indication that the speaker felt that the blind man may have somehow “ deserved” his affliction, as an individual, due to some transgression in a prior life ( a variable idea for discussion yes, but not central here). The speaker apparently subscribed to either a “ prior aeon” view ( which we Can find in a number of churches today) or possibly believed it piossible the blind man somehow sinned in the womb ( which runs counter to received judeo- Christian theology but was circulating then inI. Certain Greek schools). At any event , the statement would have made no sense in an
Original Sin doctrinal sense because then we would all be born physically blind. So I dut t think of it. But yes as you say maybe the writer was giving his personal view or twist on this line in john. Thanks!