After reading the referenced site, and looking at its contents, I am curious as to why you asked this question of others.
If you scrutinized the site from which this topic was taken, you should not have needed to ask your question. So what is your opinion of why there are gross differences between the KJV and modern versions, both in content, and in translation style?
And, in general, what is your purpose in bringing this topic up, if you already knew the answer at the outset?
I am honestly sorry I brought this up. I was hoping to learn something here.