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To: editor-surveyor
In the Hebrew scriptures, the difference is not discernible, as it is a vowel sound, not a consonant.

You did not answer my earlier question regarding Jacob's prophecy as to whether you had a scriptural reference to Messiah or an Apostle interpreting it. That question still applies to Zechariah 5:7 as well, with the addition of others related to your theory that woman was mistranslated by the Jews and almost all Christians in Zechariah 5:7.

  1. When do do hold the vowel markings were added to the Hebrew Bible, and consequently do you believe (as some do) that they too were inspired and preserved by the Holy Spirit ?
  2. How do you account for Zechariah 5:9 using the plural for woman (nashim) since the Hebrew for fire (esh) is only used in the singular ?

3,546 posted on 11/02/2014 9:03:45 PM PST by af_vet_1981 (The bus came by and I got on, That's when it all began.)
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To: af_vet_1981

Jacob’s prophecy could hardly be more interpreted than his own words; the dominant nation of the entire world is not something that would leave much question. Neither would the nation that colonized the world.

The identities of those two nations is not in any way in question, nor are the colonies.

Do you somehow fear Jacob’s prophecy shattering your man made theology? His words were very explicit.


3,547 posted on 11/03/2014 8:29:41 AM PST by editor-surveyor (Freepers: Not as smart as I'd hoped they'd be)
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