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To: mlizzy

Read the text of the article so you can debate with knowledge of the context.

There is no Genesis 315 and what you attribute to Genesis 315 is not in the Bible.


757 posted on 09/28/2014 10:44:01 PM PDT by Syncro (The Body of Christ: Made up of every born again Christian. Source: Jesus in the Bible)
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To: Syncro

Genesis 315 is a person’s handle, not a reference to any verse. This is his quote on the subject. Read the commentary and click into the link.


765 posted on 09/28/2014 11:10:25 PM PDT by mlizzy ("If people spent an hour a week in Eucharistic Adoration, abortion would be ended." --Mother Teresa)
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To: Syncro
"There is no Genesis 315 and what you attribute to Genesis 315 is not in the Bible."

No, and while that was only the name of some poster it seems, them poster must believe that verse refers to Mary, perhaps based upon the Douay-Rheims use of feminine pronouns — she and her — implying that the woman is the person being spoken of in this part of the verse.

Yet as even RC apologist Akin states,

The reason for the difference in the renderings is a manuscript difference. Modern translations follow what the original Hebrew of the passage says. The Douay-Rheims, however, is following a manuscript variant found in many early Fathers and some editions of the Vulgate (but not the original; Jerome followed the Hebrew text in his edition of the Vulgate). The variant probably originated as a copyist error when a scribe failed to take note that the subject of the verse had shifted from the woman to the seed of the woman. - http://jimmyakin.com/mary-and-genesis-315

Likewise the Catholic RSV-2CE states on about Genesis 3:15 :

*3:15, he shall bruise your head: i.e. the seed of the woman, that is, mankind descended from Eve, will eventually gain victory over the powers of evil. This victory will, of course, be gained through the work of the Messiah who is par excellence the seed of the woman. The Latin Vulgate has the reading ipsa conteret, "she shall bruise." Some Old Latin manuscripts have this reading, and it occurs also in St. Augustine, De Genesi contra Manichaeos, II, which is earlier than St. Jerome's translation. It could be due originally to a copyist's mistake, which was then seen to contain a genuine meaning-- namely, that Mary, too, would have her share in the victory, inasmuch as she was the mother of the Savior. (emp. addd)

The RC New American Bible translates Genesis 3:15, “I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and hers; He will strike at your head, while you strike at his heel.”

The 1917 Catholic Encyclopedia states on the IM, The translation "she" of the Vulgate is interpretative; it originated after the fourth century, and cannot be defended critically," however it still insists the women is Mary.

There is also another use of the word for "seed" as coming to a woman in Rebekah in Gn. 24:60. And the Hebrew is said to allow a plural rendering.

And a banned (of course) CA (Catholic Answers) poster stated "The Hebrew can't be quoted as 'she.' The verb is a Qal-imperfect second person masculine singular with a third-person masculine singular object." http://forums.catholic.com/showpost.php?p=11314795&postcount=6

Gen 3:16 also says she will have labor pains, which Mary is said to be protected from.

And Romans 16:20 states, The God of peace will soon crush Satan under your feet.

Yet as all that matters is what Rome says, CA answers the question (with a women teacher), "Who is the woman referred to in Genesis 3:15: Eve or Mary?" by quoting popes:

These ecclesiastical writers in quoting the words by which at the beginning of the world God announced his merciful remedies prepared for the regeneration of mankind . . . saying, "I will put enmities between you and the woman, between your seed and her seed" taught . . . that his most Blessed Mother, the Virgin Mary, was prophetically indicated; and, at the same time, the very enmity of both [Mary and her Son] against the evil one was significantly e xpressed. - Pope Pius IX, in his dogmatic bull Ineffabilis Deus

And Pope John Paul II taught in Mulieris Dignitatem:

It is significant that [in Galatians 4:4] St. Paul does not call the Mother of Christ by her own name, "Mary," but calls her "woman": This coincides with the words of the Protoevangelium in the book of Genesis (cf. Gen. 3:15). She is that "woman" who is present in the central salvific event that marks the "fullness of time": This event is realized in her and through her.

http://www.catholic.com/quickquestions/who-is-the-woman-referred-to-in-genesis-315-eve-or-mary

864 posted on 09/29/2014 10:04:35 AM PDT by daniel1212 (Come to the Lord Jesus as a contrite damned+destitute sinner, trust Him to save you, then live 4 Him)
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