My point was not that all these other writers subscribed to sola fide (nor that that excludes the necessity of a faith that will effects work), or that the word was there, any more than many other words are not actually in the Greek when translators add them in conveying what they see as the meaning, but simply that others saw “alone” as warranted, though i myself oppose such additions here and in general.
The interpretation hinges on whether “works of the law” only refers to those, versus all such systems of justification based upon being actually moral worthy, with the Law being used for if man could be justified by any such system then it would be the Law.
“for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law.” (Galatians 3:21)
Obviously since Abraham was counted as righteous before the Law, then that in conversion one is justified by faith is what is being taught. Yet as faith without works is dead, so one can be said to be justified by works, as the latter vindicates one as having faith, but not as if his works make him actually holy enough to be with God.