To: wagglebee
It has long been acknowledged that the translators of KJV used portion of the Douay–Rheims New Testament in certain places. What places would that be? The entire premise of the King James was to translate from the original languages. Latin was not the original language of the Old or the New Testament. It must have been in the Apocrypha or Deuterocanonical Books, which most Catholics seem to believe were never included in the KJV, if so.
To: RegulatorCountry; afraidfortherepublic; Salvation
The committees that translated the KJV compared it to "Former Translations" and for centuries scholars have noted a few passages that seem to come from the D-R.
If you want to drag me into a KJV-only debate, don't bother.
29 posted on
09/09/2014 9:34:56 AM PDT by
wagglebee
("A political party cannot be all things to all people." -- Ronald Reagan, 3/1/75)
To: RegulatorCountry
Years ago I had a chance to purchase a Lollard bible/ 90%, for short money around 12k but the seller could not guarantee the providence,
A lot of the language was very similar to KJV.
56 posted on
09/09/2014 1:56:50 PM PDT by
Little Bill
(EVICT Queen Jean)
To: RegulatorCountry
The Douay-Rheims was NOT consulted when the KJV was created. No corrupted Catholic manuscripts were consulted.
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