How do you reconcile the fact that Catholic doctrine clearly contradicts Scripture? I mean they are supposed to be equal, right? And in my many years here I have seen over and over again that Rome sees Scripture as a handmaiden to “tradition. “
That does not address the question I asked. If Scripture is the one and only authoritative basis, how can that apply from Pentecost until the canon was firmly established?
The Catholic Church does not teach that Scripture is "a handmaiden to Tradition," as you said. If that's what you heard from Catholics, then either they did not express the doctrine on Scripture adequately, or you did not understand it adequately. (Or both. That's always that.)
We teach the Sacred Scripture (Catechism, 104) "... as what it really is, the word of God".
That's a clickable link to the Catechism, and worth reading in context.
Nobody is going to seriously say the "Word of God" is a "handmaid" to something else.
After all, Scripture is the major part of what was handed down to us from the Apostles.