“You have been making those claims, over and over again; but I tend to believe that if you had proof, you would show it, over and over again. “
I’ve already posted the proof, it’s in the verses that you can read as well as anyone else. Revelation clearly describes two events, as well as other verses. How can you explain those away by pointing to a verse that isn’t as specific? It’s impossible, all you can do is try to intentionally misread verses to cast doubt on others.
“I am simply saying that I believe you are misinterpreting the scriptures; and I have been saying that all along.”
How is it possible that saying there are two resurrections, when the Bible describes the two resurrections, names them the first and second resurrection, and gives us details as to who will be part of each, be a misinterpretation? Your only argument for that is to point to less specific verses while ignoring the more specific ones.
All I see two are distinct resurrections in the Revelation separated by a "thousand years." The only way they can fit the futurist agenda of a future "rapture of only Christians" is by spiritualizing the scripture.
>>>How is it possible that saying there are two resurrections, when the Bible describes the two resurrections, names them the first and second resurrection, and gives us details as to who will be part of each, be a misinterpretation? Your only argument for that is to point to less specific verses while ignoring the more specific ones.<<<
There are many verses that contradict your interpretation. Even the ones that you claim justify your interpretation are unspecific.
For example, the fact that Paul doesn't refer to the resurrection of the unjust, as well as the just, in 1st Thessalonians 4 does not mean they were not resurrected at that time. And when John mentions a "second death" in Revelation 20, he could have been implying there is also a "first death." After all, the "first resurrection" implied there was a "second resurrection," and there was, in the same chapter.
However Jesus and Daniel were very specific. Jesus explained that both the good and the evil would be resurrected in "the same hour" (John 5:28-29;) and Daniel, in chapter 12, prophesied that "at that time . . . many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake," both the good and the evil. Both indicate that the good and the evil are resurrected at the same time, or within a very short time of each other. The resurrections in the Revelation are a very long time apart: e.g., a "thousand years."
Why should I believe your interpretation? If you show me clear proof of your interpretation, one that explains why Daniel and Jesus did not say what they clearly said, then I will believe you. Merely restating that you have already shown me the proof is not proof. Post scriptural proof, if you have it.
Philip