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To: aMorePerfectUnion; FredZarguna; Deacon Augustine; ReformationFan; Secret Agent Man; metmom; ...
Not having sex in a marriage is unBiblical, except by agreement, for a short time, for prayer.

You mean just because

• God/Christ describes marriage as "cleaving" and becoming one flesh, (Gn. 2:24; Mt. 19:4,5)

• and there is no example of celibate marriage anywhere in Scripture btwn two adults able to procreate,

• and celibacy for such is only advocated in the context of being single, (Mt. 19:10-12; 1Cor. 7:8)

• and Paul restricts abstinence to only a period of fasting, and then to come together again,

• and teaches that celibacy is a gift, (1Cor. 7:1,7)

• and in no way evidences that all clergy are presumed to have it,

• but instead lists marriage and raising children as normal credentials for ministry "(For if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take care of the church of God?" - 1 Timothy 3:5)

then you think mandating celibacy for priests (not to mention that is never what pastors are distinctively titled by the Holy Ghost) is uinBiblical?

But when did Scripture become the supreme authority for Rome,

or when was Scriptural warrant necessary for doctrine (or even reasons behind infallible decrees held as necessarily infallible)

or when did anything Scripture say have authority unless Rome interpreted thusly?

Yet as some attempt must be made (in condescension to pesky Protestants) by RCAs to provide some sort of Scriptural warrant for traditions of men, you have forgotten that they are endowed with a amazing gift of extrapolating what is needed to provide some Scriptural warrant (like 1 Cor. 3 as teaching purgatory )

Thus, out of, "this I say, brethren, the time is short: it remaineth, that both they that have wives be as though they had none," (1 Corinthians 7:29) is extrapolated support for lifelong celibacy; which, to be consistent, means that Christians can no longer show weeping, or rejoicing, or use things they possess, (1Cor. 7:30), rather than just living in consecration and holiness as the Lord enjoined, (Lk. 21:34) not preoccupied with cares of this life, and in which fasting and sexual relations can both be enjoined to, and marriage bed be declared undefiled. (Heb. 13:4)

And it is a standard and safe rule in exegesis to interpret the unclear texts in the light of the clear.

However, as other sola ecclesia groups go to extremes, with the LDS exalting sex above which is written, Catholics have gone to the other extreme, and in so doing exampled more exegetical errors, even holding that all marital relations are unclean, as they could not be effected without the ardour of lust, this being carnal concupiscence, though it is “no longer accounted sin in the regenerate."

Jerome (engaging in a false dilemma) reasoned that since 1Cor. 7:1 says "it is good not to touch a woman, [then] it is bad to touch one: for there is no opposite to goodness but badness." And that since men must always pray, ministers could not be married, and invoked Genesis 7 as proving that "two is not a good number because it destroys unity, and prefigures the marriage compact." (More: http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/religion/2966953/posts?page=311#311)

All this is not meant to demean celibacy in consecration toward God, nor must this particular priest be celibate (Rome makes allowances for those who enter the priest hood married), but refutes the idea that it should be presumed that those called to ministry normally have the gift of celibacy. That is simply presumptuous and asking for trouble.

20 posted on 01/27/2013 3:29:10 PM PST by daniel1212 (Come to the Lord Jesus as a contrite damned+destitute sinner, trust Him to save you, then live 4 Him)
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To: daniel1212

daniel1212”unBiblical”

The Bible wasn’t completed until about the year 120, about 90 years after Jesus’ Death. For about 400 years after this it floated around mostly by word of mouth. A few Bibles after this started by written by hand, but were mostly in the hands of Churches because it was such a painstaking process. The first printed Bible came out in 1456. The verses were added in 1560. Since most Christians for most of the time after Jesus didn’t have access to a Bible, have most Christians throughout history been “unBiblical”? Most Christians for most of history followed the voice of the Church. And wasn’t it the Catholic Church guided by the Holy Spirit that settled on the books of the Bible in the first place? When I’ve discussed these things with Protestants, they inevitably say the early Christians followed the Holy Spirit. But what happens when disagreements pop up. Peter and Paul disagreed. Following the Spirit without the Pope leads to what we have today, the scandal of 40,000 Christian denominations. Jesus wants us to be one with Him and the Father.


38 posted on 01/27/2013 6:36:58 PM PST by MDLION ("Trust in the Lord with all your heart" -Proverbs 3:5)
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To: daniel1212

Doctrines of demons


162 posted on 01/29/2013 10:27:09 PM PST by Lera (Proverbs 29:2)
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