I understand what youre saying but dont see the logic of it.
Some things of God are not able to be understood by human logic. :o)
One of the names used for Jehovah is Everlasting Father. For Him to BE an everlasting father implies there must be also an everlasting son, else He would not be called everlasting "Father". The word used in Isaiah 9:6 for everlasting is עַד or "'ad" and it means:
1) perpetuity, for ever, continuing future
a) ancient (of past time)
b) for ever (of future time)
c) for ever (of God's existence)
The words in Isaiah 9:6 translated as everlasting father is " `ad `ab" with BOTH words being masculine nouns: אֲבִיעַד. The word "everlasting" is used 49 times in the Old Testament and speaks of eternity or forever. Granted, it is used sometimes to mean "from now on", but when used as applying to God, it speaks of eternity - always was, always will be. Jesus is also said to be "from everlasting to everlasting" and it ties back into the everlasting father being the father from eternity having a son from eternity. An eternal father with an eternal son.
One of the many Messianic prophecies is Micah 5:2, which says:
But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.
WRT Jesus being called "Everlasting Father" (Isa. 9:6), from the Barnes' Notes on the Bible:
Thus, the father of strength means strong; the father of knowledge, intelligent; the father of glory, glorious; the father of goodness, good; the father of peace, peaceful. According to this, the meaning of the phrase, the Father of eternity, is properly eternal. The application of the word here is derived from this usage. The term Father is not applied to the Messiah here with any reference to the distinction in the divine nature, for that word is uniformly, in the Scriptures, applied to the first, not to the second person of the Trinity. But it is used in reference to durations, as a Hebraism involving high poetic beauty. lie is not merely represented as everlasting, but he is introduced, by a strong figure, as even the Father of eternity. as if even everlasting duration owed itself to his paternity. There could not be a more emphatic declaration of strict and proper eternity. It may be added, that this attribute is often applied to the Messiah in the New Testament; John 8:58; Colossians 1:17; Revelation 1:11, Revelation 1:17-18; Hebrews 1:10-11; John 1:1-2.
Gill's Exposition of the Entire Bible puts it as:
When Jesus said to the Jewish religious leaders of His day that he is the I AM, that God is His Father, they knew very well what He was saying and they took up stones to stone Him because, "that thou, being a man, makest thyself God" (John 10:33). When I asked you what you believed Jesus to be, you said, "What Paul believed Him to be". This is what Paul said of Jesus, "And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory." (I Tim. 3:16) and "Which none of the princes of this world knew: for had they known it, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory." (I Cor. 2:8)
here are some of the ways other translations read:
“But you, Bethlehem Ephrathah, though you are small among the clans of Judah,out of you will come for me one who will be ruler over Israel, whose origins are from of old,
from ancient times.” (NIV)
“Whose origin is from of old, from ancient times.” (NAB) A footnote applies this to the Davidic line being old, ancient.
The American Standard Version gives “from ancient days” as an alternative reading for “everlasting”.
But who knows maybe all these translators are closet Arians.
Isaiah 9:6 speaks of what the Son would be called and as the notes you have show he is father in sense of giving life,
“but Christ is a Father with respect to chosen men, who were given him as his children and offspring in covenant; who are adopted into that family that is named of him, and who are regenerated by his Spirit and grace: and to these he is an “everlasting Father...” (Gill)
But then in order to support “everlasting” he goes off into predestination, Jesus was a father before there children.
“The word used in Isaiah 9:6 for everlasting is.. or “’ad” and it means:....c) for ever (of God's existence)”
But since Isa. 9:6 is speaking of the Son and not the Fatherand as the next verse shows “ad” means from a point in time forward forever, everlasting that the Son would rule from David's throne.
In the same sense “ad” and “owlam” is used at Isa. 30:8 to say “forever and ever” of something that has a beginning, a starting point but extending into the future without end.
I'll continue later in the morning.
“God was manifest” is a spurious reading that even the Douay Version rightly rejects seeing that the oldest Biblical manuscripts such as Codex Alexandrinus and others as noted below have the correct reading . Codex A shows signs of being tampered with to read “God was manifest” over “He was manifest”.
“In 1 Timothy 3:16 it has textual variant (Greek fonts here) (he was manifested) supported by Sinaiticus, Ephraemi, Boernerianus, 33, 365, 442, 2127...” (wikipedia under Codex Alexandrinus)
When Jesus said to the Jewish religious leaders of His day that he is the I AM, that God is His Father, they knew very well what He was saying and they took up stones to stone Him because, “that thou, being a man, makest thyself God” (John 10:33
But Jesus showed their accusation was false as he said the term “god” could be said of humans, he has said the was “the Son of God”.
“Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified and sent into the world , Thou blasphemest because I said I am the Son of God ?” (John 10:35)
Translating “ego eimi” as “I Am” at John 8:58 makes a mess of the simple statement Jesus made. Good English must pay attention to the tenses and “I Am” doesn't do that.
Jesus said he existed before Abraham existed or came to be so “I am” is simply the wrong tense, it could better be translated as “I was” or “I have been” .
And a number of translations do just that.
Some may see a connection to Ex. 3:14 but the LXX translates the Hebrew as “I am the one” not just “I am”.
Thus even a blind man, formerly blind man, could say of himself, “I am” without claiming to be God or a part thereof. (John 9:9)