Please put prejudice aside and look at Our Lord’s words.
Why does Our Lord repeatedly call Mary “woman” in the
Gospel? His last words, He used “woman” in addressing His mother from the Cross.
Mary is the “woman” in Genesis 3:15 and in Revelation, Chapter
12.
God knows the whole plan, from beginning to end.
You posted to yourself, which is fitting as you again assert that we are acting out of prejudice, yet it is you who reject the majority of RC authorities who have no problem seeing the women as the church (Israel was the people of God first), while your interpretation has no more official authority than that of another lay RC apologist.
You are also placing undo emphasis on the word “woman,” which John also used to refer to other women, including the Samaritan women, (Jn. 4:21) and the woman caught in adultery (Jn. 8:10), and Mary Magdalene (Jn. 20:15) and the adulterous women of Rev. 17.Which is unlikely to be an individual.
But you don't.
Do you think this is Mary, also?
5 And she brought forth a man child, who was to rule all nations with a rod of iron: and her child was caught up unto God, and to his throne.
6 And the woman fled into the wilderness, where she hath a place prepared of God, that they should feed her there a thousand two hundred and threescore days.
Jesus also addresses others as "woman" in the Gospels. Special meaning....?
His last words, He used “woman” in addressing His mother from the Cross.
Really?
John 20:15 Jesus said to her, "Woman, why are you weeping? Whom do you seek?" Supposing him to be the gardener, she said to him, "Sir, if you have carried him away, tell me where you have laid him, and I will take him away."
And Mary Magdalene?
Mary is the “woman” in Genesis 3:15 and in Revelation, Chapter 12.
And who or what is the "woman" in Revelation 17?