I am curious. Are these bishops, who belonged to a faith community which denied the Church for centuries, being required to give some testimony to their allegiance to specific Ecumenical Councils and the appropriate interpretations? I ask because I know that the SSPX are being required to accept some specific interpretation of Vatican II before being considered in union with Rome, and I fear Anglicans, who have for centuries denied much more than just one interpretation of one council, will be required to do no more than assent to the Creed. What exactly are these bishops being held to in that regard?
They're in a slightly different position from the SSPX because the folks involved have been a separate denomination for quite a few centuries.
Having started out as a Piskie myself, I can tell you it's quite a come-down to acknowledge that all those sacraments you thought you had for decades didn't amount to a hill of beans (except of course baptism). THAT is a much more serious thing to accept (especially for a priest) than acknowledging the validity of what you were supposed to have sworn obedience to in the first place.