[Cronos]

So “angel of the Lord” is simply another way of saying angel. -- not really. As you said The NAB in a footnote on Ex. 3:2 says that the term used by the translators, “angel of the Lord” was used elsewhere, “referred to indifferently in some Old Testament texts either as God's angel or as God himself”. -- either this or that. It is not definitely a way of saying angel.

Now Jesus could not have been "just an angel" because of John 1 - "In the beginning was The Word, and The Word was with God, and The Word was God."

[count-your-change]

The term “indifferently” means just what I said, with interchangeability, like six and half a dozen.

“Now Jesus could not have been “just an angel” because of John 1 - “In the beginning was The Word, and The Word was with God, and The Word was God.”

Now that we have established that Jesus was not “just an angel” perhaps you can analyze the rest of John 1:1,2.

God is used three times in these two verses, can you identify who is being spoken about from these verses?