Some of you keep claiming that, but nowhere have you laid out where in the Constitution, law, etc. such a mechanism/process exists or existed. And the reason for that is because it does not and never existed. It is completely made up. The Vice President has absolutely no power, authority, or role to do what you suggest. Period. Even if theoretically he got a motion to make such a ruling as the presiding officer, it could have easily been overruled by an appeal of the chair’s ruling.
And moreover, to borrow this from another FReeper:
https://freerepublic.com/focus/f-news/4133096/posts#3
The “election” alleged to be fraudulent has no Constitutional existence. The 50 State Legislatures which appoint 535 Electors (and Congress, which appoints 3) have all adopted the custom of having people voting as the means by which the appointments are normally made, but this creates 51 elections, not one.
Those 51 elections occur at the direction of, and are subservient to, 50 legislatures and Congress. The States unwisely granted Congress 3 Electors by ratifying the XXIII Amendment in 1960, so Congress does have supervisory power OVER THOSE THREE, but not otherwise.
There is only one Presidential election in the Constitution, it takes place in December, there are 538 voters, and in December 2020 Biden got 306 of them and was elected President.
No State Legislature objected that its Electors were not the ones they had appointed. No State Legislature even convened to consider the matter. In the case of Pennsylvania, the Legislature fled to avoid considering the matter.
It has never been alleged that a single one of the 306 votes for Biden/Harris was a forgery, that the Electors who casted them were impersonating someone else, or that the Legislatures had secretly appointed other Electors.
There is zero space for an allegation of fraud in the Constitutional Presidential election of December 14, 2020.
As far as the 51 elections which occurred on November 3, 2020, they may very well have been rife with fraud, but since the appointment power of the 50 State Legislatures (535) and Congress (3) is plenary, that’s a problem for those legislatures to deal with should they choose to do so.
But you never answered my question. If the VP never had authority to challenge the election, why did they pass a law prohibiting the VP from challenging future elections?
I’ll give you a clue. It’s because they were sure the VP did have that authority.
So why did Pence wait until 1pm the day of to let Trump and the J6 attendees know that he had decided to not pursue reviewing the claims of fraud, broken laws? The timing alipne says a lot.