According to this Washington Post graph, 51% of Americans owned guns in 1978, vs. 36% in 2016, and yet they claim it's "the prevalence of guns" causing mass shootings? Something isn't quite jiving with these pro-gun control arguments we see after each major mass shooting. Why is it kids had easier access to guns in the 1960s, and schools generally had much, much more lax rules about having guns on campus, yet students weren't indiscriminately shooting every classmate they could back then?
