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To: Brian Griffin; Jim 0216

> The Constitution requires a high crime or misdemeanor. <

Yes. But the Constitution gives the House the sole power to define just what those terms mean. As an example, Benjamin Franklin once remarked that a President could legally be impeached just for being rude!


10 posted on 09/29/2019 9:51:29 AM PDT by Leaning Right (I have already previewed or do not wish to preview this composition.)
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To: Leaning Right
I agree entirely, the reason is whatever Congress says it is. The impeachment of Johnson is a great example of this and the details of which make for an interesting bit of history.

IMO impeaching Johnson for violating the Tenure of Office Act was simply a construct for impeaching him and the real reason is that he wasn't being "tough" enough on the South. That SCOTUS later deemed the Tenure of Office Act unconstitutional shows it for the purpose it was enacted.

21 posted on 09/29/2019 10:33:51 AM PDT by Proud_texan (McCarthy was right)
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To: Leaning Right
the Constitution gives the House the sole power to define just what those terms mean.

No it doesn't. It gives that power to the Senate who have the sole power of trial.

26 posted on 09/29/2019 10:58:24 AM PDT by AndyJackson
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