Posted on 12/18/2016 5:45:20 PM PST by blam
Does the NT say on such and such a night Joseph and Mary had relations and produced other children? No. It doesn't have to.
The context of the NT tells us they did.
There is no Biblical evidence of her being forever a virgin. Yes, the virgin birth of Jesus, Son of God, but no Biblical evidence she died a virgin.
It is important to realize that all ‘religions’ are man-made.
Mary did call God her Saviour, (Luke 1:47) In your opinion what sin did Mary need God to save her from?
Tough.
Bravo! There is no Hebrew word for brother. They were not quite as distinguishing of relatives as we are. The world wasn’t quite as crowded in those days. The Hebrew word for brother is the same as it is for cousin, step brother, etc. It’s a word similar to the southern word “Kinfolk”. It just serves the purpose of the Protestants and non-catholics, it makes them feel better about ignoring the Mother of God. They don’t want to be guilty of not honoring thy mother and thy father and that would include the mother of Jesus. Since the Catholic church was there from the beginning we just didn’t show up like 1500 later, we know from Holy Tradition (all the things that aren’t written down like most of the things your own mother told you but you know them but you didn’t write them down but you do hand them down to your children, that kind of Holy Tradition )that Joseph was previously married, his wife died, he had previous children and that’s why he was an older man. So Prots. need to go and find a good Jewish rabbi and find out what the Hebrew word for brother is, when you find out there is none, just remember the joke is on you, guys!
I believe the New Testament was written in Greek, not Hebrew. So the question becomes is Greek word for brother used to describe James, and is it also used when it refers to Jesus’ brothers?
By jove you’ve got it! That’s why Catholics refer to Mary as the Immaculate Conception. God chose her from the beginning of time to be the mother of his son, nothing that is sinful can be in contact with God. The prefigure of the Virgin Mary would be the Ark of the Covenant and that is why when ordinary men touched it they died! God could not have gone inside her womb if she were not sinless. How could it be you ask? Because for God there is no time, since, He knew his son would bring Salvation to the world He prescribed those merits to Mary from her very conception. It is not that she is God she did not save herself! She also has been saved through Jesus Christ. It’s kind of like post dating or predating a check that you know you’re going to cash on a certain day, so you just did it ahead of time.
You are aware the NT was written in Greek? Right?
Ruth Everhart = waste of skin!
Yes and yes; in addition to the context of the verses.
You are saying Mary being sinless is Catholic belief?
I'd say the Stooges were more successful in looking like women than those two are.
The New Testament was written in three languages, Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic. We Catholics are more aware than the Protestants because around the year 300 a man named Saint Jerome who was the most excellent Latin scholar brought these books together and translated them into one language.
This is one of the stumbling blocks for our Protestant friends. Joseph was Jewish. Somebody who was speaking Greek would be wrong to translate the word for Kinfolk to brother. It would mean he would probably have some agenda after all it could mean first cousin, second cousin ,step relatives or even someone taken in at a young age and raised with the family. That’s why you need to remember St. Paul’s words to” hold fast to the traditions”, those things that everyone that lived at that time knew and accepted to be true. Everyone living in the town with Joseph and Mary knew that those were not biological brothers that Mary Had No Son except Jesus. it’s just that after two thousand years and the Protestant Reformation, that has gotten swept under the rug by those again who have an agenda.
>>Since the Catholic church was there from the beginning we just didnt show up like 1500 later,
Protestantism didn’t “just show up like 1500 later”. It comes out of the Roman Church as a part of the catholic (universal) church. The early Protestant leaders were priests just as their Roman Church contemporaries were. They just went back to the source scriptures to examine how “church tradition” had corrupted it.
Yes! Mary was sinless from conception because of the application of the merits that would be won through Christ. This is why Catholics also referred to Mary as the First Christian. The first to be receive the salvation of Jesus Christ and the first to say “yes” to Jesus when asked if she would become the mother of the savior. She was asked and not forced even God would not violate her free will. She was the first to receive Christ.
The only thing our society shames anymore is virtue.
Lol, and then proceeded to violently disagree on what their “examinations” uncovered.
But wouldn’t Mary’s mother, then, also have had to been sinless?
Great topic for another thread, another day. But we were specifically discussing whether or not Mary was a virgin. If you bite off too big of a topic, you can’t stay focused and deal with it but thank you for your reply anyway, interesting comment!
No.
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