Replies

You don’t have to “buy” the distinction; it exists whether you want it to or not.

For modern-day liberals, of course, it does not have to exist with respect to the US southern border. But that is not what this subject is about, and trying to conflate the two bespeaks a malicious agenda.

The rest of the reply is conjecture and misdirection. Also bespeaks an agenda of malice. There is always peace before war breaks out (which it did in 1939), and trying to pretend once more that Allied intelligence was so incompetent as to not know about machinations towards war is just insulting to not only the intelligence of the one addressed but also oneself.

Ology-hai: "You don’t have to “buy” the distinction; it exists whether you want it to or not."

But only in your obviously fertile imagination, unless you can cite facts & statistics from circa 1939 which show that the US was admitting not just ordinary quota-based immigrants, but also special-consideration "refugees" from persecution in, say, Germany or Austria.
To my knowledge, it never happened.

But what did happen was tens of thousands of lawful Jewish immigrants admitted each year before WWII, and during WWII additional Jews provided for as, yes, refugees.
Of course, today we judge that to have been inadequate, but it was considerably more than other countries, and more than FDR is usually given credit for.

As I posted above, when time permits next week, I'll look up & post those statistics for you.

Ology-hai: "The rest of the reply is conjecture and misdirection.
Also bespeaks an agenda of malice.
There is always peace before war breaks out (which it did in 1939), and trying to pretend once more that Allied intelligence was so incompetent as to not know about machinations towards war is just insulting to not only the intelligence of the one addressed but also oneself."

FRiend, I don't "get" where all of your malice on this subject is coming from.
You seem determined to condemn FDR for not accepting enough Jewish immigrant/refugees, and to resist my suggestion that he actually did more than usually given credit for, more than any other country, and everything that he lawfully could have done.

Plus, you seem determined to insist that FDR coulda-shoulda foreseen in, say, 1938, the Holocaust of 1941 - 1945.
I have merely pointed out that Nazis themselves did not know before 1941 exactly what they were going to do about their "Jewish question".
They had in mind shipping their Jews to Madagascar.

So, what does that have to do with either "malice" or "insulting"?