If the Senate already has the Constitutional authority to ratify a treaty but they are requesting, via this bill, for the authority to review the arrangement with Iran, they have tacitly accepted that said arrangement is not a treaty.
Isn't it at the very least worthy of an amendment to the bill when it comes to the floor?
One would think so. But I very much doubt that one will be forthcoming.
1. There is no "if". The Senate has the authority.
2. Since when did the action of any legislative body become a "request"?
3. How is the power to define the word "treaty" ceded to the Excutive? Does not the co-equal Legislative have the same power?
#3 sums up my interest in the matter as a way for Congress to assert it Constitutional role.