For me, I prefer to define "rape" and "sexual assault" according to classical criteria.
If it was:
A) Sexual intercourse accomplished via violence or threat of bodily harm, orthen it rape. Otherwise it wasn't. And in the case of (B), if they were married, then I would consider consent to be implicit unless explicitly withdrawn.B) Sexual intercourse on an actually unconscious woman who was unaware that sex was happening (not just drunk, but completely unconscious).
If a girl accuses a guy of rape because "well, I had sex with him because I thought we were going to have a relationship, but then he didn't call", then SHE should be expelled, if not prosecuted.
Sexual assault has mutated such that when two equally drunk, consenting people have sex, the man can be considered guilty of rape while the woman is innocent.
The charge of rape then depends on her deciding she feels she was raped, though they were equally impaired and willing.
Add in colleges prosecuting guys based on a woman changing her mind about an encounter months later or who had to negotiate where to hook up and cross half a block to meet up, and the “rape culture” is incredibly unfair to men.
She just has to feel like it, and the school prosecutes. If the police say there is no evidence, he may still get kicked out of school, removed from a residence hall, denied his diploma.