Now people allege that it is the Commerce clause from which their authority derives, but this is incorrect. They are just using an abuse of power granted to them through Wickard v. Filburn, but the real and legitimate authorization lies in the Defense clause. Can you produce any historical background to back up that assertion? There is evidence to support the assertion that it's not within the original intent of the Commerce Clause, but finding it within the intent of the Defense clause seems to be a personal innovation.
Can you produce any historical background to back up that assertion? There is evidence to support the assertion that it's not within the original intent of the Commerce Clause, but finding it within the intent of the Defense clause seems to be a personal innovation. How about we just save a lot of time and you tell me where is the authority in the constitution for stopping people from shipping chemical weapons into the country?
Or do you think the government doesn't have the authority to do that?