“About the same percentage as when Texas became a Republic?”
I do know that the present population is somewhere in the region of 25.5% Hispanic statewide (as of 1990...it is probably a few percent higher now), and that it was around 11.5% in 1940 and roughly 17% in 1970. http://www.census.gov/population/www/documentation/twps0056/tab58.pdf
But it is nowhere near 2/3, as I observed (non-scientifically).
My point was that there have ALWAYS been ‘Hispanics’ in the area.
Atrributing the increase in percentage to merely illegals would be incorrect.
The ‘Hispanics’ were there LONG before the Anglos arrived in large numbers. (Remembering BEFORE the Alamo...)
What is the average family size for H vs A?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_Texas