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EXACTLY. The Supreme Court has ALREADY de facto ruled on gay marriage in 1971, and essentially said that bans do NOT violate the Constitution. The Court recently chose not to overrule this previous ruling, which means that ACTUALLY, gay "marriage" bans are completely constitutional by the Court's own admission.
1 posted on 10/22/2014 7:45:38 AM PDT by Yashcheritsiy
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To: Yashcheritsiy

This judge is an answer to prayer.


35 posted on 10/22/2014 4:12:33 PM PDT by upchuck (The language of government now is word-spew. ~ h/t Peggy Noonan)
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To: Yashcheritsiy

. “Ultimately,” he wrote, “the very survival of the political order depends upon the procreative potential embodied in traditional marriage.”

astonishing common sense.


36 posted on 10/22/2014 6:05:31 PM PDT by MeshugeMikey ("Never, Never, Never, Give Up," Winston Churchill)
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To: Yashcheritsiy
The Fed judges around the mainland here do not fear the public.
Americans need to teach them fear of their losing job for activism.

They should be condemned and shamed in their own neighborhoods because
it effects everybody equally, Constitutionally. Posters would be a good start.

37 posted on 10/22/2014 6:15:29 PM PDT by MaxMax (Pay Attention and you'll be pissed off too! FIRE BOEHNER, NOW!)
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To: Yashcheritsiy

Hmm...Some daylight, finally.


40 posted on 10/22/2014 8:25:47 PM PDT by notted
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To: Yashcheritsiy
The First Circuit will reverse him, to be sure, but will have to grapple more extensively with Baker than prior Courts of Appeals' decisions have.

Ordinarily, this would invite cert from SCOTUS regardless of the substantive issue, but the Court should care intensely about when its past decisions can be deemed overruled by implication, but it has clearly taken the political decision that it's best for gay marriage to become law with no more SCOTUS dictate than Windsor.

It will still require the 5th, 6th, 8th or 11th Circuits to uphold one of the DOMAs under challenge before them for the Supremes to act.
43 posted on 10/23/2014 5:50:31 AM PDT by only1percent
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To: Yashcheritsiy

Why does Puerto Rico get to choose but other states can’t?

Oh...you say because they’re “latino”? And that they have rights? And since I’m a gauchupino I don’t get to have the same say as they do?


44 posted on 10/23/2014 9:55:24 AM PDT by Roman_War_Criminal
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To: Yashcheritsiy
and all the other states don't use the same law because???
45 posted on 10/23/2014 6:54:25 PM PDT by Chode (Stand UP and Be Counted, or line up and be numbered - *DTOM* -vvv- NO Pity for the LAZY - 86-44)
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To: Yashcheritsiy

The “Courts” only approved it in Puerto Rico because they are MINORITIES, and so they have more rights than regular Americans.


47 posted on 10/24/2014 11:55:00 AM PDT by 2harddrive
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