Aren’t states required to make sure the vote is carried out in a process that causes confidence in the sanctity of the vote?
How can you do that if folks can vote over and over and over again, and you can’t even ask them to identify themselves so their names can be checked against the voter rolls?
Just what is this business of citing judicial precedent? Don’t you know that sort of legal maneuvering is just the kind of thing that will throw the Democrat “get out the vote” effort off balance and may even result in a REPUBLICAN having a chance of winning?
(Do I HAVE to include the < sarcasm > tag?)